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  Question:

  I've read your statement that you think the New King James Version is a good translation, but how do you answer all the verse by verse criticisms of the NKJV by Peter Ruckman, Gail Riplinger, AV1611.org, and others?

  Answer: Thank you for this question. I have been examining these verse by verse criticisms of the NKJV, by Ruckman, Riplinger, and others, for years. I will use this question as an opportunity to present the answers I find to all the criticisms I have read in Riplinger and Ruckman's Books and on the web.

  First of all, I would like to emphatically state that the New King James Version (NKJV), published by Nelson Publishers, is directly translated - not "paraphrased", from the correct Textus Receptus Greek text and Masoretic Hebrew text - exactly the same texts that underlie the 1611 KJV translation. I know this for a fact, from close examination, comparing the 1611 KJV and the NKJV to the Textus Receptus Greek text. Also, I teach from the 1611 KJV, comparing its translation to the Textus Receptus and Masoretic Hebrew text, while my wife follows along in her New King James Version.

  Those commentators who state that the New King James Version is translated from the "Alexandrian Manuscripts" need to "look a little further into their goings" (Prov. 14:15). There are at least nine major errors in all the Bibles translated from the "Alexandrian Manuscripts" but these nine passages are correct, and match the Greek Textus Receptus, in the New King James Version.

  I have included the "Strong's Index Number", for each 1611 KJV word in question, so you can check my answers to these criticisms of the NKJV, by looking up the 1611 KJV word, or phrase, in Strong's Exhaustive Concordance. The Strong's "index number", in the back of the Strong's Concordance, gives a basic definition and how each Greek word is translated in the 1611 KJV.

  You can also use www.blueletterbible.org on the Web to see both the 1611 KJV and NKJV and the Textus Receptus Greek Interlinear, all three keyed to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance numbers. Use the Blue Letter Bible "C" Button to see the Textus Receptus Greek and Lexicon entries, and the "V" Button to switch English versions.

  I recommend the free "On Line Bible" computer program for word searches in English or the original languages. Download the "On Line Bible" free at www.onlinebible.net.

I sincerely hope this study will help us all to better understand and appreciate God's Word, and to better appreciate the task of the "Bible translators."

  Here are my answers to the criticisms I have read:

  NKJV Criticism #1. The NKJV replaces "thou, thy, and thine", with "you or your". The Greek and Hebrew language contain a different word for the second person singular and the second person plural pronouns. Today we use the one-word "you" for both the singular and plural. But because the translators of the 1611 King James Bible desired an accurate, word-for-word translation of the Hebrew and Greek text - they could NOT use the one-word "you" throughout! If it begins with "t" (thou, thy, thine) it's SINGULAR, but if it begins with "y" (ye) it's PLURAL.

  #1 answered: I looked up the 1611 KJV "thou, thy, and thine's" and the NKJV "you and your's", and I did not find a single instance where there was any doubt about "singular and plural". The context is very clear whether one person is being addressed, or whether two or more are being addressed. I find absolutely no problem with any of the "you's", and "your's", in the NKJV.

  NKJV Criticism #2. The NKJV removes the word "repent" 5 times! And how does that make the NKJV "much clearer"?

  #2 answered: The Greek word "Metanoieo", Strong's number <3340> is true "repentance", a real "change of mind" and both the 1611 KJV and NKJV translate it correctly, as "repent".
The Greek word "metamelomai", Strong's number <3338>, is an emotional reaction, not true "repentance", and is correctly translated "regret", "remorse", and "relent" in the NKJV. The 1611 KJV translators translated BOTH "Metanoieo", AND "metamelomai" as "repent".
The NKJV only changed "repent" five times where the Greek word <3338> "metamelomai" occurs. The NKJV differentiates between true "repentance" and "an emotional reaction". The five verses in the NKJV:

--- Matthew 21:29 "He answered and said, ’I will not,’ but afterward he regretted (<3338> "metamelomai") it and went".
--- Matthew 21:32 "For John came to you in the way of righteousness, and you did not believe him; but tax collectors and harlots believed him; and when you saw it, you did not afterward relent ("give in" <3338> "metamelomai") and believe him".
--- Matthew 27:3 "Then Judas, His betrayer, seeing that He had been condemned, was remorseful (<3338> "metamelomai") and brought back the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders."
--- 2 Corinthians 7:8 "For even if I made you sorry with my letter, I do not regret (<3338> "metamelomai", "presently regret") it; though I did regret (<3338> "metamelomai", Greek "imperfect tense" "did regret it at the time") it. For I perceive that the same epistle made you sorry, though only for a while".
--- Hebrews 7:21 "for they have become priests without an oath, but He with an oath by Him who said to Him: "The LORD has sworn And will not relent (give up <3338> "metamelomai"), You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek".
I find the NKJV to be correct in every passage where "<3340> metanoieo" AND "<3338> metamelomai" occur.

  NKJV Criticism #3. The NKJV changes "Holy Ghost" to "Holy Spirit" 89 times!

  #3 answered: The Greek words in question here are "<40> hagios <4151> pneuma", translated in the 1611 KJV as "Holy Spirit" 4 times, and as "Holy Ghost" 89 times.
It seems that there are people who believe that there is a difference between the 1611 KJV "Holy Ghost" and the "Holy Spirit", and that the 1611 KJV translators were inspired by God in this "Holy Ghost"/"Holy Spirit" translation.
The Greek phrase underneath the 1611 KJV "Holy Ghost" and "Holy Spirit" is always the same "<40> hagios <4151> pneuma". So, did God's people not have the true word of God until the 1611 KJV was translated?
The 1611 KJV translates <4151> "pneuma" as "spirit", some 296 times and as "ghost" 91 times, then in Matt. 14:26 where the actual Greek word for "ghost" occurs (<5326> "phantasma"), the 1611 KJV says "spirit"!

--- 1611 KJV Matt 14:26 "And when the disciples saw him walking on the sea, they were troubled, saying, It is a spirit (<5326> "phantasma" - Greek word for "ghost"!) and they cried out for fear."
The NKJV simply translates every occurrence of "<40> hagios <4151> pneuma" as "Holy Spirit" - and correctly translates <5326> "phantasma" in Matt 14:26, as "ghost".

  NKJV Criticism #4. In Romans 11:29 the NKJV changes "repentance" to "irrevocable"!

  #4 answered: Greek word "Ametameletos" here, Strong's number <278>, means "NO REGRETS", the gifts of God ARE IRREVOCABLE! God's gifts are stated to be "Sovereignly bestowed", and "permanent". The NKJV is correct here.

  NKJV Criticism #5 The NKJV has removed the term "new testament", it is NOT in the NKJV! The NKJV replaces "new testament" with "new covenant"!

  #5 answered: The 1611 KJV translates the Greek word "diatheke", Strong's number <1242>, as "covenant" 20 times, and "testament" 13 times. In the 1611 KJV "Old Testament" text, the Hebrew word is translated "covenant" over 250 times - and NEVER "testament".
Then, in the Greek text, SPEAKING OF THE VERY SAME "COVENANTS", the 1611 KJV translates the Greek word "<1242> "diatheke", - as "testament" 11 times when the context is speaking of God's "covenants" with the Nation of Israel. I believe the 1611 KJV word "testament" has actually caused a "misunderstanding" of God's "covenants". Jesus lived and died under the Old (Mosaic) "covenant"! The four Gospels tell us "about" the New Covenant, but are actually a continuation of the books of the Old "Covenant".
The NKJV is simply being "consistent", by translating <1242> "diatheke" as "covenant", EVERY TIME the context is speaking of God's "covenants".

  NKJV Criticism #6. The word "devils", has been completely removed from the NKJV! They replaced it with the "transliterated" Greek word "demon".

  #6 answered: There is only one "Devil" in the Bible, which is the Greek word <1228> "diabolos". <1228> "Diabolos" is always "singular" in the Textus Receptus Greek text, never "plural"!
The fallen angels are "Demons", <1140> "diamonion" in the Greek text.
The 1611 KJV translators did not differentiate between THE "Devil" and "demons", but universally translated both <1228> "diabolos" AND <1140> "diamonion" as "devil" and "devils".
"Devil" is a title of Satan:

--- 1611 KJV Revelation 12:9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil <1228> "diabolos", and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.

--- 1611 KJV Matthew 4:1 Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil <1228> "diabolos".
The 1611 KJV translation of BOTH <1228> "diabolos" AND <1140> "diamonion" as "devil", often leaves the reader wondering whether the reference is to THE Devil - Satan, or to a "fallen angel" ("demon").

God placed two different Greek words in the Textus Receptus Greek text, <1228> "diabolos" for THE Devil, and <1140> "diamonion", for the fallen angels. When I look at a list of all the verses that contain these two words, it is obvious to me that the NKJV is much clearer by always translating <1228> "diabolos" as "devil" and <1140> "diamonion" as "demon".

  NKJV Criticism #7. In 2 Timothy 2:15, the NKJV removes that "obsolete" word - "study", and replaces it with "be diligent"! The only time you're told to "study" your Bible. AND THEY ZAP IT! Why don't they want you to "study" your Bible? Maybe they don't want you to look too close - you might find out what they've ACTUALLY done to your Bible! The "real" KJV is the only English Bible in the world that instructs you to "study" your Bible!

  #7 answered: The NKJV is correct. <4704> "spoudazo" means to "hasten", "to exert one's self", "to endeavor". The 1611 KJV translates <4704> "spoudazo" as "endeavor" 3 times, "do diligence" twice, "be diligent" twice, "give diligence" once, "be forward" once, "labour" once, - AND "study" ONCE in 2 Tim 2:15! There is nothing in the word <4704> "spoudazo" that means "study".
"Study" is not replaced because it is "obsolete" - it is replaced because "Be diligent" is what <4704> "spoudazo" means, and "be diligent" includes BOTH study AND, more importantly - "application"!

  NKJV Criticism #8. That "obsolete" word "virtue" is replaced with "power" in Mark 5:30, Luke 6:19, 8:46, where Jesus felt "virtue" go out of him! How does anybody confuse "virtue" with "power"?

  #8 answered: "Virtue" here is <1411> "DUNAMIS" - "POWER", where we get our English word "dynamite"!
The 1611 KJV translates <1411> "dunamis" as "power" 77 times!
There is a Greek word for "virtue", the Greek word <703> "arete", meaning "moral excellence", and it is correctly translated "virtue", in BOTH the 1611 KJV AND NKJV, in Phil. 4:8, and in 2 Pet. 1:4 and 5.
I do not believe Jesus felt any "moral excellence", <703> "arete" leave Him, the word is <1411> "DUNAMIS" - "POWER", in Mark 5:30, Luke 6:19, and 8:46, and correctly translated "power" in the NKJV.

  NKJV Criticism #9. The NKJV removes the word "hell" 23 times! Who in their right mind would think "Hades" is "up-to-date" and "much clearer" than "hell"?

  #9 answered: Underneath the word "hell" in the 1611 KJV New Testament, there are three different Greek words. The 1611 KJV translators did not differentiate between these 3 words, but covered them up 21 times with the single English word "hell":

--- "gehenna"<1067>, is a perpetually burning trash dump just South of Jerusalem, that Jesus used eleven times as an illustration of physical death due to unrepentant sin. The NKJV translates this word as "hell".
--- "Hades" <86>, is the New Testament Greek word for the present abode of the those who have died in unbelief. Jesus described "hades" in Luke 16:21-31, as a place in the heart of the earth, with a section for Old Testament saints, called "paradise", and a section for unbelievers, who are tormented by fire. The Old Testament saints were removed from "hades", and transferred to the third heaven, by Jesus when He ascended to heaven, Matt 27:51-53, Psa 68:18-20. All unbelievers, both Old and New Testament, will go to "hades", where they will be held until they are resurrected to stand before the Great White Throne. The NKJV correctly translates this word as "hades"
--- And "tartaros" <5020> The hottest place in Hades, where 2 Pet 2:4 states the angels who "left their first estate", and sinned in Genesis chapter 6 are being held. The NKJV translates this word as "hell".
--- The final state of "Hell" does not even exist yet! In Rev 20:14, we find that Death and Hades <86> are cast into the lake of fire AFTER the Great White Throne.

The 1611 KJV covers up these three Greek words with the single word "hell", and the reader does not know what God actually placed in the context.
I do not think we should be proud of "ignorance"! We should diligently and prayerfully try to fully understand what our English translations are saying.
How can we criticize the NKJV for correctly translating the Greek word "hades" as "Hades"?

  Specific criticisms of the NKJV "removing" the word "Hell":

--- In Matt. 11:23 and 16:18, Luke 10:15 and 16:23, Acts 2:27 and 31, and Rev. 1:18, 6:8, and 20:13 and 14, the NKJV changes "Hell" to "Hades". The Greek word in these verses is <86> "hades", and the NKJV correctly translates them as "Hades".

--- The NKJV changes "grave" to "Hades" in 1 Cor. 15:55 - ". . . O Hades, where is your victory?"

The Greek word here is <86> "hades", also. The 1611 KJV translates "hades" as "Hell" ten times in the New Testament, and then once as "grave" in 1 Cor. 15:55! The NKJV simply translates all eleven occurrences of <86> "hades", as "Hades".
Again, Jesus described "hades" in Luke 16:19-31, and it certainly is not a "grave". The NKJV is correct.

  NKJV Criticism #10: NKJV changes the word "servant" to "slave" twice. The NKJV in Romans 6:22, reads: "But now having been set FREE from sin, and having become SLAVES OF GOD. . ." The NKJV, in 1 Corinthians 7:22, calls the Christian, "Christ's slave".

  #10 answered: There are four different New Testament Greek words, for four different types of "servants", and there is ONE Greek word for a "slave", and that is the word here, <1401> "Douloo" - a "SLAVE"! What is wrong with being God's "slave"? Rom. 6:17 says that we were "slaves of sin", and 1 Cor 6:19 says "ye are not your own, and 1 Cor 7:23 states "Ye are bought with a price;.."!", and we belong to Him! He takes care of us, provides for us, motivates us to do His will, and even allows us to be "free" to get out of fellowship, and "disciplines us" when we do not quickly confess our sin and return to "fellowship"! It is our "freedom" that gets us in trouble!
God's Word describes our standing in many other ways, such as a "bride", a "building", a "flock", "children" of God, "servants" of God, "ambassidors of Christ", the "body" of Christ, the "called out ones", a "Holy Temple", "saints", and "priests" unto God. In John 15:14, Jesus told His disciples "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you".
Each of these descriptions is a "figure", describing one of the "facets" of our wonderful relationship with God - including "slave", in Rom. 6:22, and 1 Cor. 7:22, where "slave" reminds us that we were "slaves to sin" and now have been "purchased", as Acts 20:28 says, "with his own blood".
The NKJV simply translates the Greek word here - <1401> "Douloo" - correctly as "slave".

  NKJV Criticism #11 "The NKJV removes the words "damned", and "damnation" and has replaced them with "condemned" and "condemnation". "Condemned" is NO WHERE NEAR AS SERIOUS as "damned"! Damned is eternal!" (Criticism from AV1611.org)

  #11 answered: "Condemned" in the NKJV is correct.
--- If "damned is eternal", then Christians can be "eternally damned" for "doubting" whether they can eat meat or not in Rom 14:23. Paul just spent a whole chapter stating that it is OK for the Christian to eat the meat in question. The Christian here is "condemned" for doubting, not eternally "damned", as the 1611 KJV states.
--- If "damned" is "eternal", then the 1611 KJV "damns" Christians to Hell for eating the Lord's Supper unworthily, in 1 Cor 11:29!
--- And, the 1611 KJV "damns" Christians to Hell forever, for "resisting earthly authorities", in Rom 13:1-7!

There are four Greek words that the 1611 KJV translates "damned" and "damnation", and the 1611 KJV translates these SAME four Greek words as "condemned" or "condemnation" 29 times, and as "damned" or "damnation" 13 times:

--- "katakrino" <2632> The 1611 KJV translates as "condemnation" 17 times, and "damnation" 2 times.
--- "krima" <2917>, The 1611 KJV translates as "condemnation" 5 times, and "damnation" 7 times.
--- "krino" <2919>, The 1611 KJV translates as "condemnation" 5 times, and "damnation" 1 time.
--- "krisis"<2920>, The 1611 KJV translates as "condemnation" 2 times, and "damnation" 3 times.
You can check these words out for your self with a Strong's Concordance!
Again, the NKJV is simply faithful to the Greek text and consistent in its translation of these Greek words as "condemned" or "condemnation", instead of switching to the expletive "damned", out of thin air.

  NKJV Criticism #12. In order to "harmonize" with the satanic New Age Movement, the NKJV changes "end of the WORLD" to "end of the AGE"! And it's no longer the "WORLD to come" but the "AGE to come". See Matthew 12:32, 13:39, 13:40, 13:49, 24:3, 28:20, Mark 10:30, Luke 13:30, 20:34,35, 1 Cor 1:21.

  #12 answered: The Greek word in question here is <165> "aion". "Aion" is a PERIOD OF TIME. The "End of the AGE", and the "AGE to come" is correct, and speaks of the present "dispensation", or the "dispensation to come". The New Testament "comes alive" when we realize these passages speak of God's "Dispensations"! When Jesus and His disciples speak of the "end of the Age" they are speaking of the "end of the Jewish Age"! The Church Age is a mystery hid in Christ (Eph 3:2-6) and is inserted into the Jewish AGE 7 years before the completion of the Jewish AGE. The 7 year Tribulation is the completion of the Jewish AGE, and the "AGE" after the Tribulation is the "Millennial AGE".

The 1611 KJV translates "aion" correctly in two passages:

--- Ephesians 2:7 "That in the ages <165> to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus".
--- Colossians 1:26 "Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages <165> and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:"

Consider these 1611 KJV examples:

--- Matthew 13:39 "The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world <165> (The end of the Jewish AGE, at the Second Advent); and the reapers are the angels." The end of the Jewish AGE, at the Second Advent is NOT the "end of the world"! It is the beginning of the Millennial "Age" on this earth.
--- Matthew 13:40 "As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world <165> (Again, the end of the Jewish AGE, which is the Second Advent of Christ)".
--- Matthew 13:49 "So shall it be at the end of the world <165> (Again, the end of the Jewish AGE, at the Second Advent): the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just,"
--- Matthew 24:3 "And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world <165> (Jesus gave them the "signs" of the "end of the Jewish AGE")?"
--- Matthew 28:20 "Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world <165>". (The end of the Jewish AGE. Jesus will be with us IN PERSON in the Millennial AGE). Amen."
I find the NKJV to be much more faithful to the original Textus Receptus Greek text, in translating the Greek word <165> "aion". The group of 47 1611 King James Translators contained believers, unbelievers, Protestants and Catholics. What they had in common, was that they were top "linguists" of their day. It is easy to see, from their work of translating the New Testament, that they were not all "theologians". That is why we need Pastors and Teachers today who study and teach from the original New Testament Greek! The first three universities founded in the United States, were primarily established for one purpose - to teach the original Greek and Hebrew to Bible teachers and Missionaries!

  NKJV Criticism #13. The New Age Movement and the occult are longing for one called the Maitreya. The Bible calls him the Anti-Christ. New Ager's refer to him as the "the Coming One" - AND SO DOES THE NKJV! In the NKJV, in Matt. 11:3 and Luke 7:19 and 20, John told his disciples to ask Jesus: "Are You THE COMING ONE. . ."!

  #13 answered: It does not matter what the "cults" do or say, or what any other "Bible translation" says, we should not "act and react" according to them! What matters is that we are faithful to God's Word! "The coming One" is exactly what the Greek Textus Receptus says in Matt 11:3. This is a "TITLE" for the coming Messiah of Old Testament prophesy. The Greek phrase "Ho <3588> Erchomenos <2064>" is an "Antimereia of the verb", which is a "Participle used as a noun", and the Analytical Greek Lexicon states that this "verb" is in the "Nominative", "naming", case, and is "articular", (preceeded by the Greek article "THE"), which is a "TITLE" of the Messiah - "THE COMING ONE". This Koine Greek "title", "THE Coming One", refers to Psa 118:26, "Blessed be he that cometh in the name of the LORD", which is a reference to the Messiah in Old Testament prophesy. John the Baptist and his followers knew exactly what they were saying, when they asked Jesus if He was "Ho Erchomenos", "THE Coming One".
E. W. Bullinger recognized "The Coming One" in his "Figures of Speech used in the Bible", in 1898.
M. R. Vincent, in his "Word Studies in the New Testament", recognized this "Greek Idiom" and Title of Christ, in 1887.
The first English translation I find that recognizes "The Coming One", is the Weymouth Bible, translated in 1903. Weymouth stated that he "paid particular attention to the Greek idioms". The NKJV translators did also, and I think we should do the same.

  NKJV Criticism #14. BELIEVE IT OR NOT - in Acts 17:29 the NKJV changes "Godhead" to "Divine Nature"!

  #14 answered: Do any of you know what a "Godhead" is? Even the English Dictionary defines "Godhead" as "divinity"!
This is the Greek word "Theios" <2304>, and I think "Divine Nature" is an EXCELLENT translation!
This word "Theios" is in two other New Testament verses, 2 Pet 1:3 and 1:4, and the 1611 KJV itself translates "Theios" "Divine" both times:

--- 1611 KJV 2 Peter 1:3 "According as his divine <2304> power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue:
--- 1611 KJV 2 Peter 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine <2304> nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.

The NKJV simply translates all three correctly, as "Divine". "Divine Nature" in Acts 17:29, "Divine Power" in 2 Pet 1:3, and "Divine Nature" in 2 Pet 1:4.

  NKJV Criticism #15. In Matthew 7:14, the NKJV changes "narrow is the way" to "difficult is the way". There's nothing "difficult" about the salvation of Jesus Christ! Jesus says in Matt. 11:30, "For my yoke is EASY, and my burden is light." THE EXACT OPPOSITE! Boy, you talk about a contradiction!

  #15 answered: The Greek word here in Matt 7:14, is <2346> "thlibo", which the 1611 KJV translates here as "narrow". "Thlibo" occurs 10 times in the Textus Receptus Greek text. The 1611 KJV translates "thlibo" also as "trouble" 4 times, "afflict" 3 times, "throng" 1 time, "suffer tribulation" 1 time, and "narrow" once, here in Matt 7:14. <2346> "thlibo" is a VERB, meaning "to press hard upon", "to be under pressure", as in the "pressing" of grapes. "Thlibo" is used as a "metaphor" for "trouble" or "affliction", in the New Testament, so the NKJV is perfectly correct to translate "thlibo" as "difficult". We must remember that Jesus is speaking to the Jews, who often lost their inheritance, their business, and their family as a result of believing in Jesus as their Savior. Jesus uses "present tenses" in this passage to express the "present" extreme difficulty to which the Jew who believed in Him would be subjected.

Actually, "strait", in both verses 13 & 14, is "stenos" <4728> meaning "narrow" and <2346> "thlibo" is a verb, meaning "to press hard upon"!

Lets look at Matt 7:13 & 14 in the 1611 KJV:

--- "Enter ye in at the strait ("stenos" <4728> "narrow") gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go (present tense, are presently going in) in thereat:
14 Because strait ("stenos" <4728> "narrow") is the gate, and narrow (<2346> "thlibo", "with trouble", or "afflicted") is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find (Present tense "are presently finding") it.
Jesus often spoke of having to "give up everything" to follow Him, and the difficulties and persecution His followers would face! Yes, HIS "yoke" IS easy, and HIS burden IS light, because what HE asks us to do, HE gives us the desire, and ability to do, but the Jews to whom Jesus was speaking, would lose everything they had and their relatives would disown them. Like Jesus said, "count the cost". The Scriptures teach:
--- John 16:33 1611 KJV "...In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world". (Our future with Christ is worth it)
--- Acts 14:22 1611 KJV "Confirming the souls of the disciples, and exhorting them to continue in the faith, and that we must through much tribulation enter into the kingdom of God.
--- 2 Tim 3:12 1611 KJV "Yea, and all that will live godly in Christ Jesus shall suffer persecution".
I believe the NKJV is correct in its translation of Matt 7:13 & 14, in expressing the "narrow" way, of Jesus only, and "difficulties" the followers of Jesus will face.

  NKJV Criticism #16. In Matthew 12:40, the NKJV changes "whale" to "fish". (what's the truth got to do with it?). The Greek word used in Matthew 12:40 is "ketos". The scientific study of whales just happens to be - "CETOLOGY" - from the Greek "ketos" for whale and "logos" for study! The scientific name for whales just happens to be - "CETACEANS" - from the Greek ketos for whale!

  #16 answered: According to Thayer's New Testament Greek Lexicon, "Ketos" <2785>, in the ancient world, meant "sea monster", a "whale", or a "huge fish". A "Whale" is just the largest fish we know of today, but that does not mean that a "whale" swallowed Jonah.
Jesus is referring to Jonah 1:17, and 2:1, which the 1611 KJV translates "Now the LORD had prepared a great fish (Hebrew word "dag" always translated "fish" in the 1611 KJV OT) to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights. We do not know what it was, but "a huge fish" covers it all. It may or may not have been a "whale", we do not know. It was in the ocean and it "swallowed" Jonah, and God Himself "prepared it". The Hebrew word for "prepared" here is "mawnaw <04487> (8762)", meaning "ordained", or "appointed".
To me, the NKJV is perfectly correct in translating "ketos" in Matthew 12:40 as "fish", especially since the Old Testament, "great fish" is being quoted. "Naming" a certain fish, without knowing whether we are correct or not could easily be WRONG, and misleading. The "great fish" that swallowed Jonah may not even exist today!
Men, long after the Bible was written, gave names to sea creatures and named their scientific study.
If we are going to get upset that the NKJV changes "whale" in Matt 12:40, to "fish", why don't we get upset at the 1611 KJV Old Testament translators for saying Jonah was swallowed by a "great fish"?
The NKJV says "fish" in BOTH Jonah 1:17 & 2:1, AND in Matt 12:40, which I say is consistent and an IMPROVEMENT! All we KNOW, is that it was a specially prepared "great fish", and if we try to name it, we could be wrong.

  NKJV Criticism #17. In Matthew 18:26 & Matthew 20:20, the NKJV removes "worshipped him" (robbing worship from Jesus).

  #17 answered: In Thayer's Lexicon, <4352> "proskuneo", in the New Testament, means "kneeling or prostration, to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication".
Matt. 18:26 is actually a parable, where an earthly servant falls down before his earthly master, and asks his master to have patience with him in paying a debt. The earthly servant in this parable does not "worship" the earthly master, he just wants some more time to pay a debt!
In Matt. 20:20, the mother of Zebedee’s sons came to Jesus asking that her sons sit on His right hand and left hand in His Kingdom. She is not "worshipping" Jesus, she is selfishly asking Him for something she cannot have!
The NKJV "Fell down before him", and "kneeling down" is perfectly fine in these two passages, to me.

  NKJV Criticism #18. The NKJV completely removes the word "atonement" from the New Testament!

  #18 answered: The English word "atonement" occurs ONCE in the 1611 KJV, in Rom. 5:11, where we, who believe in Christ, are said to have received "the atonement".
The Greek word translated "atonement" in Rom 5:11 is the noun form of "katallasso". Thayer's Greek Lexicon states that this word literally means "to exchange", and in it's New Testament contexts means "to be reconciled", or "restored to favor", in that, through the expiatory death of Christ, God "exchanged" the fallen state of sinners for a state of favor and blessing.
"Katallasso" is also found twice in the previous verse, Rom. 5:10, and again in Rom. 11:15, 1 Cor 7:11, and 2 Cor 5:18-20, where it is translated "reconciled", "reconciling", and "reconciliation" in every instance in the 1611 KJV, except for Rom. 5:11.
Apparently, the 1611 KJV translators used the literary rules of Elizabethan English to avoid repeating a word more than twice in Rom 5:10 & 11, so, where God placed the Greek word "katalasso" three times, the 1611 KJV translators changed the Word of God to fit their English "literary rules", by changing the translation of the third occurrence of "katalasso" from "reconciled" to "atonement".
The KJV translators used the English word "atonement" in the Old Testament to translate the Hebrew word "kaphar", everywhere it spoke of the sacrifices, meaning literally "to cover", referring to sins being temporarily "covered" by the blood of the sacrifices . "Kaphar", is translated 71 times in the 1611 KJV Old Testament, as "atonement" referring to the TEMPORARY "covering" of sin. The Old Testament sacrifices, for a "covering" of sins, had to be continually repeated for individuals, and yearly for the Nation of Israel. The animal sacrifices God commanded in the book of Leviticus looked forward to Jesus and His once for all finished work on the Cross.
I do not find in the New Testament that Jesus did anything "temporary" on the Cross, or that any sins were just "covered".
Again, the NKJV is just being consistent in Rom 5:10 & 11. Where God placed "katalasso" three times in Rom 5:10 & 11, the NKJV translates all three correctly as "reconciled", "reconciled", and "reconciliation".

  NKJV Criticism #19. The NKJV removes the word "Christ", in Mark 13:6 & Luke 21:8!

  #19 answered: That is because the word "Christ" is not in Mark 13:6 & Luke 21:8! It is added by the 1611 KJV Translators, as you can see by the "italics". These two verses speak of false messiahs, as Jesus says, coming "IN MY NAME".
The question is, what "name" will these false messiahs use? They have used "Jesus", Son of God", "the Christ", "the messiah", "Emmanuel", "Yeshua" and others.
Mark 13:6 in the NKJV - "For many will come in My name, saying, ’I am He,’ and will deceive many".
"Mark", and "Luke", the authors of these passages, did not place a "name" in these two verses, but left it "open" for any of the many "names" of Jesus. I think the NKJV translation "I am He" is preferred, because it covers ANY of the MANY "names" of Jesus that a false messiah might use.

  NKJV Criticism #20. In John 1:3, the NKJV changes "All things were made BY him;" to "All things were made THROUGH Him".

  #20 answered: The Greek preposition "dia" <1223>, primarily means "through", not "by". The Greek Lexicon states "dia is a primary preposition denoting the channel of an act". The 1611 KJV itself translates "dia" <1223> as "through" 88 times. The Scriptures state some 25 times that "God" created the heavens and earth, and the Holy Spirit also took part in the creation, beginning with Genesis 1:1 & 2 "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth", "And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters". "Created all things "by" Jesus Christ, would mean that He is the "sole creator" - "by Himself". God is One, and the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are stated to have taken part in the creation.
Five times the New Testament states that the creation exists "dia" <1223> - "through" (the channel of the act) Jesus:

--- Heb 1:1-3 1611 KJV "God hath spoken to us in these last days and appointed Jesus heir of all things, "by (dia <1223>, through) whom he made the worlds".
--- Eph 3:9 1611 KJV God "created all things by (dia <1223> through) Jesus Christ".
--- John 1:1-3 and 14 1611 KJV Speaking of the eternal Second Person of the Trinity, Jesus, the "Word of God" in verse 14, "All things were made by (dia <1223> through) him; and without him was not any thing made that was made".
--- John 1:10 & 11 in the Greek states about Jesus: "He was in the world and the world was made by (dia <1223> through) Him, and the world knew Him not. He came into His own things (the world He created) and his own people did not receive Him".
--- Col 1:13-17 and 19 1611 KJV Speaking of Jesus, "For by ("en" in Him) him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by (dia <1223> through) him, and for him".
The NKJV correctly translates "dia" <1223> as "through", indicating that Jesus took part in the creation, in all 5 of the above passages.

  NKJV Criticism #21. In John 4:24, the NKJV changes "God is a spirit" to the impersonal, New Age pantheistic,"God is spirit"!

  #21 answered: There is no article "a" in the Greek, in John 4:24. God is not "a Spirit"! That would make Him just "one of many spirits"! The Greek says "GOD IS (equals) SPIRIT"! God is INFINITE SPIRIT, there is no place where He does not exist, but He fills all in all! (II Chronicles 2:5 & 6, I Kings 8:27, Jeremiah 23:24) The New King James is absolutely correct again!

  NKJV Criticism #22. The NKJV changes "comforter" to "helper" (referring to the Holy Spirit), in John 14:16.

  #22 answered: I believe NKJV is correct again. The NKJV "Helper" is a good translation of "parakletos" <3875>, in John 14:16. Do we need "comfort", or "help"? "Comfort" is emotional, "help" is real assistance.
<3875> "parakletos" basically means someone "summoned (kletos) to ones side (para)". If you were drowning, would you want someone to "come to your side" and "comfort" you, or "help" you? By the way, both the 1611 KJV and NKJV translate "parakletos" as "advocate", in 1 John 2:1.

  NKJV Criticism #23. The NKJV changes "tongue" to "language", in Acts 2:8!

  #23 answered: The Greek word in question here is "dialektos" <1258>, where we get our English word "dialect". This word also occurs two verses previous, in Acts 2:6, where the 1611 KJV translates "dialektos" <1258> as "LANGUAGE"! There are 14 known spoken LANGUAGES listed in this context, and one man spoke and every man heard in his own spoken LANGUAGE! The NKJV is correct.
<1258> "dialektos" occurs five times in the Textus Receptus Greek text, and the 1611 KJV only translated this word correctly in Acts 2:6!
These five verses in the 1611 KJV:

---Acts 1:19 And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue (<1258> "dialektos"), Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood.
---Acts 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language (<1258> "dialektos").
---Acts 2:8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue (<1258> "dialektos"), wherein we were born?
---Acts 21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue (<1258> "dialektos"), saying.
---Acts 22:2 (And when they heard that he spake in the Hebrew tongue (<1258> "dialektos") to them, they kept the more silence: and he saith,
---Acts 26:14 And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue (<1258> "dialektos"), Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.
The NKJV translates <1258> "dialektos" correctly as "language" in all five verses.

  NKJV Criticism #24. In Acts 4:27 & 30, the NKJV changes "holy child" to "holy servant" (referring to Jesus).

  #24 answered: <3816> "pais" primarily means "servant", and can mean "child" also. The 1611 KJV translates <3816> "pais" as "servant" 10 times, and "child" 7 times. The "context" must determine whether "servant" or "child" is appropriate.
In Matthew 12:18 The 1611 KJV translates <3816> "pais" as "servant", in speaking of Jesus - "Behold my servant (<3816> "pais"), whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles".
In Acts 4:27 & 30 Jesus is NOT A "CHILD", He is risen from the dead, ascended, glorified, and ruling from heaven! I believe the NKJV is correct again.

  NKJV Criticism #25. In Acts 8:9-11, the 1611 KJV states that a certain man, called Simon, "bewitched the people." The NKJV changes "bewitched" to "ASTONISHED."

  #25 answered: <1839> "Existemi" means "amazed", or "astonished".
The 1611 AV translates <1839> "existemi" as "be amazed" 6 times, "be astonished" 5 times, "be beside (one’s) self" 2 times, "make astonished" 1 time, "wonder" 1 time, and "bewitched" here in Acts 8:9-11.

--- Acts 8:9 1611 KJV "But there was a certain man, called Simon, which beforetime in the same city used sorcery (<3095> "mageia", our English word "magic"), and bewitched (<1839> "existemi", "amazed", or "astonished") the people of Samaria, giving out that himself was some great one:
10 To whom they all gave heed, from the least to the greatest, saying, This man is the great power of God.
11 And to him they had regard, because that of long time he had bewitched (<1839> "existemi", "amazed", or "astonished") them with sorceries". (<3095> "mageia", our English word "magic")
The English word "bewitched", in the 1611 KJV, means "to place under a spell", but the Greek word here <1839> "existemi", primarily means "to throw out of position", or "off balance", and means to be "amazed", or "astonished", in all it's New Testament contexts.
God's Word does not teach that people can be placed under "spells" or "voodoo". <1839> "Existemi", here, means the people were "fooled", "thrown off balance", "amazed", or "astonished". I believe the NKJV "astonished" is much better than "bewitched" here.

  NKJV Criticism #26. In Acts 12:4, the NKJV replaces "Easter" with "Passover"!

  #26 answered: I would be ashamed to mention this passage as a "criticism" of the NKJV.
<3957> "Pascha", here means "passover", and the 1611 KJV correctly translated it "passover" 28 times. Then someone on the 1611 KJV team had the brilliant idea to translate <3957> "Pascha" as "Easter", in Acts 12:4! "The English word "Easter", is a transliteration of "Ishtar" the Babylonian pagan goddess of fertility! See the Origin of Easter for a further explanation. The NKJV corrects this gross mistranslation.

  NKJV Criticism #27. In Acts 17:16 the NKJV changes "stirred" to "provoked".

  #27 answered: <3947> "paroxuno" here literally means "to make sharp", meaning "to stimulate", "spur on", to "provoke".
There is one other occurrence of <3947> "paroxuno" in the New Testament, in 1 Corinthians 13:5, where the 1611 KJV translates <3947> "paroxuno" as "provoked"!
The NKJV is simply "consistent", in translating <3947> "paroxuno" in both 1 Cor 13:5 AND Acts 17:16, as "provoked".

  NKJV Criticism #28. The NKJV changes "superstitious" to "religious", in Acts 17:22.

  #28 answered: In Acts 17:22, Paul is on Mars Hill, in Athens, and he was talking to men who were so "religious" they had a statue representing every "god" they knew of, and even one representing the "unknown god", in case they missed one. I do not believe this passage teaches these men of Athens were "superstitious" at all, it indicates that they were SUPER "religious".
<1174> "dice-ee-dahee-mon-es'-ter-os" was the common Greek word for "religious" in Paul's day. The English word "religious" can be "religious" in a good sense or in a bad sense, but "religious" in worshipping the deity of choice. Paul would have been "insulting" the Athenian's on Mars Hill if he had called these men "superstitious"! The context shows a great "respectful" discussion between Paul and the men of Athens concerning the "gods" they worshipped, and Paul took this opportunity to tell them about their "unknown god"! "Superstitious" does not fit this context at all. To me, the NKJV rendering "religious" is an improvement.

  NKJV Criticism #29. In Acts 19:20, The NKJV changes "the word of God", to "the word of the Lord!

  #29 answered: In Acts 19:20, the Textus Receptus reads "Ho Logos Tou Kuriou", "THE word of THE Lord"
The Greek word here is "<2962> Kurios" "Lord".
The 1611 KJV translates <2962> "kurios" correctly as "Lord" 667 times, but, once, here in Acts 19:20, the 1611 KJV translators strangely switched to "God". The Greek word for "God", <2316> "theos", is not in this verse in the Textus Receptus Greek text.
The NKJV is correct in translating "<2962> Kurios" as "Lord".

  NKJV Criticism #30 The NKJV changes "heresy" to "sect" in Acts 24:14.

  #30 answered: The 1611 KJV translates <139> "hairesis", as "sect" 5 times, and "heresy" 4 times. "Hairesis" is a "sect" when it refers to a group of people, and a "heresy", when it refers to what they believe. The Jews considered EVERY RELIGION except Judaism to be a "sect". Paul is speaking here of Christianity, "the Way which they call a sect" - a group of people the Jews call a "sect".
Since Paul is speaking here of a group of people, I believe the NKJV "sect" is a better translation.

  NKJV Criticism #31. The NKJV changes "hold the truth" in Romans 1:18, to "suppress the truth".

  #31 answered: Thayer's Lexicon states that <2722> "Kat-ekh'-o" means to "restrain", to "suppress". The unbelieving world does not "hold", or "possess" God's "Truth", they "suppress" it. 1 Cor. 1:18 and 2:14, state that the "natural man" cannot believe God's Truth and thinks the Gospel is "foolishness".
I see the NKJV "suppress" as an improvement.

  NKJV Criticism #32. In Romans 1:25, the NKJV changes "Who CHANGED the truth of God into a lie" to "who EXCHANGED the truth of God FOR the lie".

  #32 answered: <3337> "Metallasso" actually means to "exchange". The unbelieving world does not "change" the Truth into a lie, they cannot "change it", it IS God's Truth. They "exchanged" it for a "pseudos", a "counterfeit"! They "exchanged" it for systems of worship that exclude the "Truth"! God's Truth is still God's Truth - thankfully it CANNOT BE "CHANGED".
I see the NKJV translation as superior here.

  NKJV Criticism #33. In Romans 5:8, the NKJV changes "commendeth" to "demonstrates". Rom 5:8 NKJV - "But God DEMONSTRATES His own love toward us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us".

  #33 answered: Thayer's Lexicon states that the form of <4921> "sunistao" in Rom 5:8 means to "show", "prove", "establish", or "exhibit". The English word "commend" in the 1611 KJV means to "commit to", or "entrust to". But, in Rom 5:8, God is not "committing", or "entrusting" His Love to us, but God is "proving" or "demonstrating" His Love for us "in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." I believe the NKJV "demonstrates" is a better translation in Rom 5:8.

  NKJV Criticism #34. In Romans 16:18, the NKJV changes "good words and fair speeches" to "smooth words and flattering speech".

  #34 answered: The 1611 KJV "good words" here is <5542> "chrestologia", from "chrestos", meaning "fit", "appropriate", and "pleasant", plus "logos", "words". "Fair speeches" is <2129> "eulogia", meaning "praise", and in a bad sense, "language artfully adapted to captivate the hearer".
The issue in Rom 16:18 is false teachers, who "deceive the hearts of the simple" (naive).
The 1611 KJV translation "good words" is misleading here, because false teachers do not use "good" words to deceive, but the NKJV "Smooth words and flattering speech" better describes the deception of false teachers.

  NKJV Criticism #35. In 1 Cor. 1:21, the NKJV changes "foolishness of preaching" to "foolishness of the message preached".

  #35 answered: <2782> "kerugma" here is not a verb, "the act of preaching", as the 1611 KJV translates, but it is a noun, "the message proclaimed".
It is not the "act of preaching" here that the world considers "foolish", but the "message that is being proclaimed" that the world considers "foolish"!
The NKJV "foolishness of the message preached" more accurately translates the Greek noun <2782> "kerugma" here.

  NKJV Criticism #36. The NKJV changes "saved" to "BEING SAVED", in 1 Cor. 1:18, attacking the believer's "security". The NKJV reads "... but unto us which are BEING saved it is the power of God."

  #36 answered: The Greek verb "saved" here is the "PRESENT" tense, "passive" voice of <4982> "sodzo", which means "presently being saved". I wish the translators would note the tenses of ALL the Greek verbs in the New Testament. <4982> "sodzo" means "to preserve", "to keep safe and sound", and is even used for physical healing. The Greek verb "sodzo", in the "present tense", describes the EXPERIENTIAL benefits of being a born again child of God. Experientially, we're being DAILY "saved" from "fears", "doubts", "anxiety", and, the "power & domination of sin" in our life. The closer we stay to God, the more we are "being saved" from these things that "weigh us down". When we get "out of fellowship", here come the "fears", "doubts", "anxieties", and the tendency to succomb to sin, back into our life.
There are 4 more verses in the Textus Receptus where we are "presently being saved", 1 Cor 15:1&2, 2 Cor 2:15, 1 Pet 4:18, and Heb 7:25:

--- 1 Cor. 15:1&2 1611 KJV "Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2 By which also ye are saved (Sodzo <4982> (5743) Greek "Present tense" - BEING saved), if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain" (Out of fellowship and NOT "PRESENTLY BEING SAVED").
--- 2 Corinthians 2:15 1611 KJV "For we are unto God a sweet savour of Christ, in them that are saved (BEING SAVED <4982> (5746), and in them that perish". (NKJV translates correctly "being Saved")
--- 1 Pet. 4:18 1611 KJV "And if the righteous scarcely be saved (Sodzo <4982> (5743) are presently BEING SAVED), where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear".
--- Heb 7:25 1611 KJV "Wherefore he is able also to save (Sodzo <4982> (5721) Presently BE SAVING) them to the uttermost that come unto God by him".

  NKJV Criticism #37. The NKJV changes "the Jews require a sign" to "request" in 1 Cor. 1:22.

  #37 answered: The NKJV is correct, the Greek word <154> "aiteo" means to "ask", or "request". The 1611 KJV translates "aiteo" as "ask" 48 times, "desire" 17 times, "beg" twice, "crave" once, and "call for" once, but somehow placed "require" in 1 Cor 1:22! The Jews "request", not "require" a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom". We even have many evidences in the New Testament of the Jews "requesting a sign". I count 17 passages in the Gospels where the Jews were "requesting" a sign, for example -
Mark 8:11 & 12 "And the Pharisees came forth, and began to question with him, seeking of him a sign from heaven, tempting him. And he sighed deeply in his spirit, and saith, Why doth this generation seek after a sign?"

  NKJV Criticism #38. In 1 Cor. 6:9, the NKJV removes "effeminate". 1 Cor 6:9&10 1611KJV "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God".

  #38 answered: Yep, the NKJV "removes effeminate" and correctly translates <3120> "malakos" as "homosexual". Both sexes can be "homosexual"! The 1611 KJV misses the boat with "effeminate", which only applies to men! The Scriptures condemn both male and female homosexuality:

--- Rom 1:26 & 27 "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet".

  NKJV Criticism #39. In 1 Cor. 9:27, the NKJV changes "castaway" to "disqualified".

  #39 answered: The Greek word <96> "adokimos" means "disqualified". "Dokimos", means "approval", and with the negative prefix "a", literally means "not approved". "Adokimos" is one of many "Olympic terms" that Paul used, when he likened the Christian life to "Olympic competition".
In the context of 1 Cor. 9:27, Paul is stating that he "trains himself" to follow the same rules that he "proclaims to others", lest he be "disqualified" from receiving that particular "prize", in other words, for not "practicing what he preaches". This verse is in a context of "Olympic" competition:

--- 1 Cor. 9:24 1611 KJV "Know ye not that they which run in a race run all, but one receiveth the prize? So run, that ye may obtain.
25 And every man that striveth for the mastery is temperate (self controlled) in all things. Now they do it to obtain a corruptible crown ("stephanos", "award"); but we an incorruptible.
26 I therefore so run, not as uncertainly; so fight I, not as one that beateth the air (shadow boxes):
27 But I keep under (discipline and train, an Olympic term) my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.
<96> "adokimos" here means "disqualified" from receiving the "award", in this particular event, - for not "doing" as he "says".
Note: God's people may miss "rewards", but God does not "CAST AWAY" any of His people!

  NKJV Criticism #40. The NKJV changes "person of Christ" to "presence of Christ", in 2 Cor. 2:10.

  #40 answered: The NKJV is correct, <4383 > "prosopon" means "presence" not "person". "prosopon" literally means "face", and the 1611 KJV translates "prosopon" as "face" 55 times. "prosopon" speaks of the "presence", not the "person".
2 Cor 2:10 1611 KJV "To whom ye forgive any thing, I forgive also: for if I forgave any thing, to whom I forgave it, for your sakes forgave I it in the person (presence) of Christ". Paul does not take on the "person of Christ" here, his actions are in the "presence of Christ".

  NKJV Criticism #41. In 2 Cor. 2:17, the NKJV changes "CORRUPT" to "PEDDLING"! With all the "corruptions" in the NKJV, you'd expect 2 Cor. 2:17 to change. IT DOES! They change, "For we are not as many which CORRUPT the word of God" to "For we are not, as so many, PEDDLING the word of God"!

  #41 answered: In the ancient Greek society, <2585> "Kap-ale-yoo'-o" meant to "adulterate commodities to increase retail gain", and was used in the Greek culture to describe the practice of "diluting wine with water", or "placing the best vegetables on top", to increase the retail profit. I think "PEDDLING" in the NKJV is excellent here, in that it speaks of the practice of "watering down", the teachings of God's Word, to make them "more palatable", for monetary gain! The issue here is the refusal to teach the "meat of the Word", the "strong, straight, Truth". We should not "water down the Word" to make it more "acceptable", for more "success", more "profit", for more church "growth", instead of teaching the "full strength", "strong meat" of God's Word.
Read 2 Cor 2:14-17 for your self, it is "strong meat"! When have you EVER heard a preacher expound this passage? - 2 Cor 2:14-17 teaches that "we are unto God a sweet savour of Christ, in them that are (being) saved, AND in them that perish". God is always pleased when we witness, pleased when men are "saved" by the Gospel and PLEASED WHEN MEN ARE "CONDEMNED" by the Gospel. God knew in eternity past who was going to be "saved" and who was going to be "condemned" by the Gospel!
Do you see what is going on here? The Apostle Paul makes a VERY STRONG statement of the Sovereignty of God in salvation, and that God does not "love every human being", and "want every human being to be saved", but is even pleased when the Gospel "condemns" a person who is not "written in the Lamb's book of life from before the foundation of the world".
In Rev 17:8, we have record of those who will refuse the Gospel and be condemned by it - "they that dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world,". The "Perfect, Passive, Indicative" of the Greek verb "grapho" here means "Not written before the foundation of earth and never will be". Paul is saying that he is not afraid to teach the STRONG MEAT OF THE WORD! "For we are not, as so many, PEDDLING the word of God"! There is nothing here about "corrupting" God's word, the issue is "retailing", "peddling" God's Word, watering it down to increase the "profit"!
We know that when Jesus miraculously fed crowds of people, the crowd size increased, and when He made strong statements of the sovereignty of God, the crowds diminished, and that is the choice here. 2 Cor 2:14-17 NKJV - "Now thanks be to God who always leads us in triumph in Christ, and through us diffuses the fragrance of His knowledge in every place.
15 For we are to God the fragrance of Christ among those who are being saved AND among those who are perishing.
16 To the one we are the aroma of death leading to death, and to the other the aroma of life leading to life. And who is sufficient for (who has the courage to proclaim) these things?
17 For we are not, as so many, peddling (selling it as a retail commodity) the word of God; but as of sincerity, but as from God, we speak in the sight of God in Christ."
I wish the NKJV had also correctly translated "who is sufficient for these things?" in verse 16, as "who has the courage to proclaim these things"!
This passage is a wonderful promise of success to those who proclaim the Good News of Jesus Christ, and a condemnation to Bible teachers who selectively "water down", or avoid the "strong meat" of God's Word.

  NKJV Criticism #42. The NKJV changes "new creature" to "new creation" in 2 Cor. 5:17.

  #42 answered: I believe the NKJV "Creation" is an improvement in 2 Cor. 5:17, where we are a "new creation" in Christ. <2937> "ktisis" is a noun, meaning both "the act of founding, establishing, building, creating" AND the "thing" created. We must decide from the context, whether it should be "creation", or "creature"
The 1611 KJV itself translates <2937> "ktisis" as "creation" 6 times, in Mark 10:6 and 13:19, and Rom. 1:20 and 8:12, and in 2 Pet. 3:4, and Rev 3:14!
The NKJV also changes <2937> "ktisis" from "creature" to "creation" in Rom. 8:19, 20, and 21, and Gal. 6:15.
We can easily see the problem in Rom 8:19-22, in the 1611 KJV, where the whole "creation" was cursed because of Adam's sin and is "groaning for redemption":

--- Romans 8:19 1611 KJV "For the earnest expectation of the creature ("creation" <2937> "ktisis") waiteth for the manifestation of the sons of God".
--- Romans 8:20 1611 KJV "For the creature ("creation" <2937> "ktisis") was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope,"
--- Romans 8:21 1611 KJV "Because the creature ("creation" <2937> "ktisis") itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God".
--- Romans 8:22 1611 KJV "For we know that the whole creation ("creation" <2937> "ktisis") groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now".
I believe it is obvious to the reader whether <2937> "ktisis" should be translated "creature", or "creation", and the NKJV translates <2937> "ktisis" correctly in all 19 contexts.

  NKJV Criticism #43. In 2 Cor. 10:5, the NKJV changes "imaginations" to "arguments".

  #43 answered: I think the NKJV "arguments" is excellent here. <3053> "logismos" means "a reckoning, computation, or reasoning".
The NKJV, in 2 Corinthians 10:5, reads "casting down arguments <3053> and every high thing that exalts itself against the knowledge of God, bringing every thought into captivity to the obedience of Christ". Don't we think that it is "arguments" against the knowledge of God that need "casting down"? I cannot fault the NKJV here.

  NKJV Criticism #44. The NKJV changes "rude in speech" to "untrained in speech", in 2 Cor. 11:6.

  #44 answered: <2399> "idiotes", primarily means "unlearned", and the 1611 KJV translates this Greek word as "unlearned" 3 times and "ignorant" once, and for no apparent reason switches to "rude" in in 2 Cor. 11:6.
I believe the NKJV is correct here. Paul is not saying that his speech is "rude", but he is using "irony", calling himself "untrained" or "unlearned" in speech, because that is what the Corinthians are saying behind his back - as in 2 Corinthians 10:10 "For his letters, say they, are weighty and powerful; but his bodily presence is weak, and his speech contemptible" (worthless).
Paul uses "irony" bordering on "sarcasm", all the way through 2 Cor. chapter 11, beginning in verse 1 with "Oh, that you would bear with me in a little folly".

  NKJV Criticism #45. The NKJV changes "nevertheless I live; yet not I" in Gal. 2:20 to "it is no longer I who live".

  #45 answered: That is because the New King James accurately translates the Greek here:
<3765> "ouketi" means "no longer". The passage is stating that Paul "Does NOT live any longer", but Christ lives in him.
The NKJV also correctly translates the "Perfect, Passive Indicative" of "sustauroo" as "I HAVE BEEN crucified with Christ."
Here are the two verses side by side:

---1611 KJV Gal 2:20 "I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not (<3765> "ouketi", "no longer") I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me."
---NKJV Gal. 2:20 "I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer (<3765> "ouketi") I who live, but Christ lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself for me.
Again, I believe the NKJV is correct, because the Greek is saying that Paul NO LONGER LIVES, but Christ lives in him.

  NKJV Criticism #46. In Phil. 2:6, the NKJV 1979 edition changes "thought it not robbery to be equal with God" to "did not consider equality with God something to be grasped". (robs Jesus Christ of deity).

  #46 answered: I have no problem at all with Phil. 2:6-9 in the 1979 NKJV translation. The word translated "robbery" is <725> "harpagmos" means "to seize", or hold onto". Phil. 2:5-9 is a wonderful passage that speaks of the preincarnate Jesus, being "equal with God", not "holding on" to that position in heaven, but "letting it go", to lower Himself and enter the human race through the virgin birth.
The whole point is that Jesus gave up His heavenly position to be born into the human race and become both "true humanity, and "undiminished Deity" as a human being.
Later New King James Versions read almost exactly same as the 1611 KJV:

--- 1611 KJV "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"
--- Post 1979 NKJV "who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,"
I do think "robbery" here, in both versions, tends to throw most people off. <725> "harpagmos" here means that Jesus did not consider His glorious position in Heaven as something He had to "hold on to". He did not "rob anyone" - He already had equality with God for all of eternity past - but He "let go" of His glorious place in heaven, to become a man and die on the Cross. I am at a total loss as to why any translator would place "robbery" here. "Robbery" first appears here in the 1525 Tyndale version, and then the Coverdale, Bishop's, Geneva, and 1611 KJV followed suit.

  NKJV Criticism #47. In Phil. 3:8, the NKJV changes "dung" to "rubbish".

  #47 answered: <4657> "skubalon", in the Greek Lexicon, means "any refuse, as the excrement of animals, offscourings, rubbish, dregs, or concerning all things worthless and detestable."
Since "skubalon" was used in the ancient world for all these "detestable things", I would say "rubbish" is better, because all "dung" is "rubbish", but not all "rubbish" is "dung". "Rubbish" covers it all.

  NKJV Criticism #48. The NKJV changes "affection" to "MIND", in Col.3:2. The 1611 KJV reads, "Set your AFFECTION on things above."

  #48 answered: <5426> "Phroneo" means to "think", to have "understanding".
The 1611 KJV translates <5426> "Phroneo" as "think" 5 times, "regard" 4 times, "mind" 3 times, "be minded" 3 times, "savour" 2 times, "be of the same mind" 2 times, and "be like minded" 2 times, and "affection" once, here in Col. 3:2.
The 1611 KJV English word "affection", means "a positive feeling of liking", but there is nothing in the Greek word <5426> "Phroneo" about "liking".
I believe the NKJV is correct here, in that we are to "Set our MIND on things above". It is not required that we "like" them. But, I suspect that we will grow to "like" ALL the "things above", if we will keep our mind "set" on them.

  NKJV Criticism #49. In 1 Thess. 5:22, the NKJV changes "all appearance of evil" to "every form of evil".

  #49 answered: <1491> "eidos" is translated in the 1611 KJV as "shape" twice, "fashion" once, "sight" once. <1491> "eidos" means "form", "figure", "shape", "kind".
Not all "evil" has an "appearance", it may be "invisible".
Not all "evil" "appears" to be "evil", it may actually "appear" to be GOOD!
"Every form of evil" would include all types, both visible and invisible - no matter what it "looks like". I think "every form of evil" is a better translation.

  NKJV Criticism #50. In 2 Thess 2:7, the NKJV capitalizes "He".

  #50 answered: I consider this to be a "pitiful" criticism, and not a matter of "translation", but of "interpretation". "He" in this verse speaks of the "restraining One" who is presently restraining the Antichrist from being revealed and the Tribulation from beginning. Who could that be? Does anyone think the "restraining One" is a human authority? In my mind, it could only be God Himself in the power of the Holy Spirit. I have no problem with "He" being capitalized in this verse.

--- 2 Thess 2:7 - 8 NKJV "For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is taken out of the way.
8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will consume with the breath of His mouth and destroy with the brightness of His coming."

  NKJV Criticism #51. The NKJV removes the "office" of deacon from 1 Tim. 3:10 and 13!

  #51 answered: The word "office" does not exist in 1 Tim. 3:10 - 13 in the Textus Receptus Greek text! "Office" was added by the 1611 KJV translators and is not even in "italics" to notify the reader that it has been added! The 1611 KJV was translated using the "Bishop's Bible" as a basis, with the stated goal of becoming the official Bible of the Church of England, so I take this to be an influence from the official hierarchy of the 1611 Church of England. In verse 10 and 13 in this passage, <1247> "diakoneo" is a VERB, meaning "those who serve", and the 1611 KJV translators translated this VERB as a NOUN, and added "office of"! There is no "article the", and I do not see anything else here in the Textus Receptus Greek text, to make "deacon" an "office". This passage speaks of "those who serve" within the local church. The Greek VERB <1247> "diakoneo" occurs 37 times in the Textus Receptus, and is repeatedly translated by the 1611 KJV as "to minister unto", and to "serve".
I believe God's true "deacons" are the people who do the work in the local church, whether they get any recognition or not!
I believe NKJV is correct in removing the word "office" from 1 Tim. 3:10 and 13!

  NKJV Criticism #52. In 1 Timothy 6:5, the NKJV changes "gain is godliness" to "godliness is a MEANS OF gain".

  #52 answered: The Greek word <4200> "porismos" here is a "means to acquire". A "means of gain" is correct.
This passage speaks of those who "use" the Word of God as a "means of gain".

--- 1 Tim 6:5 NKJV "useless wranglings of men of corrupt minds and destitute of the truth, who suppose that godliness is a means of gain. From such withdraw yourself".

  NKJV Criticism #53. In 1 Timothy 6:10, The NKJV changes "For the love of money is the root of all evil" to "For the love of money is a root of all KINDS OF evil"!

  #53 answered: "All" in 1 Timothy 6:10, is <3956> "pas", meaning "all kinds of" or "all sorts of". There are other Greek words for "100% ALL", and Paul did not use one, he used "pas" - for "all kinds" or "all sorts of".
Nobody in their right mind would think that "the love of money is the root of 100% ALL evil"! We could make a list, starting with adultery, and ending with Mark 7:22&23 "... covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness". In Mark 7:23, Jesus said "these evil things come from within, and defile the man".
The "love of money" is NOT the root of 100% of all evil, it is the root of "ALL KINDS of evil!"
The Greek word <3956> "pas" is translated correctly as "all manner of", in the 1611 KJV in: Matt. 4:23, 5:11, 10:1, 12:31, 13:47, Luke 11:42, Acts 10:12, and Rev. 21:19.
The New King James is correct in translating <3956> "pas" as "all KINDS OF evil" in 1 Tim 6:10.

  NKJV Criticism #54. The NKJV changes "science" to "knowledge" in 1 Tim. 6:20!

  #54 answered: <1108> "Gnosis" here means "knowledge" and the 1611 KJV translates "gnosis" as "knowledge" 28 times, and then strangely switches to "science", once, in 1 Tim 6:20.
1 Tim 6:20 - 21 in the 1611 KJV states:

--- "O Timothy, keep that which is committed to thy trust, avoiding profane and vain babblings, and oppositions of science (<1108> "gnosis") falsely so called (<5581> "pseudonumos", "falsely named").
21 Which some professing have erred concerning the faith."
Is it just oppositions of "science" that causes Christians to "err from the faith"? How about other religions and cults, and their "knowledge"? How about scraps of discarded manuscript evidence found in the Middle East and the pride of "textural criticism" in attempting to change God's Word with these discarded scraps?
"Science" in the 1611 KJV is misleading. Is there any doubt that Paul is warning Timothy here of ALL TYPES of "FALSE KNOWLEDGE", and not just "science"?

  NKJV Criticism #55. The NKJV changes "heretic" to "divisive man", in Titus 3:10.

  #55 answered: No problem with the NKJV here either. <141> "hairetikos", in Titus 3:10, in the Greek Lexicon means, "schismatic, factious, a follower of a false doctrine".
The English word "heretic" means "A person who holds unorthodox opinions in any field". A Biblical "heretic" just does not believe the truth, which he should be free to do.
A "Divisive man" not only rejects the Truth, but in this context is causing schisms, or factions, or teaching false doctrine. His "divisiveness" is the issue here, not just what he believes:

--- Titus 3:9 - 11 1611 KJV "But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain.
10 A man that is an heretick (<141> "hairetikos", schismatic, factious follower of a false doctrine) after the first and second admonition reject;
11 Knowing that he that is such is subverted, and sinneth, being condemned of himself".
Again, "divisiveness" is the issue here.

  NKJV Criticism #56. In Heb. 2:16 the NKJV changes "For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham", to the confusing "indeed He does not give aid to angels but he does give aid to the seed of Abraham"! How does this "update", and "clarify" God's Word?

  #56 answered: "him the nature of", in Heb 2:16, is in "italics", and is added by the 1611 KJV translators, to "help" us understand what is being said, but I think this added phrase leads us AWAY from what is being said.
The Greek verb here is <1949> "epilambanomai", and it is in the Greek "Present tense", so, right away we can see that the "action" here is "ongoing", and cannot be "took not on him the nature of angels", which would be a "one time action" in the PAST!
<1949> "epilambanomai" literally means "to take hold of", and can be a "metaphor" meaning "to rescue", or "give aid".
So, "literally", Heb 2:16 is saying that Jesus "is not presently taking hold of angels; but he is presently taking hold of the seed of Abraham".
When we think about this, how is Jesus "presently taking hold" of the "seed of Abraham" and NOT "presently taking hold" of the angels?
To think about this another way, what is Jesus "presently doing" for the "seed of Abraham", that He is NOT "presently doing" for angels?
We must always examine the "CONTEXT" when trying to discern a difficult passage! The "context" here, is that Jesus came to earth as a human being to "deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage" - to provide "SALVATION"!
That is what Jesus is "presently doing" for the "seed of Abraham", that He is NOT "presently doing" for angels! There is no provision for "salvation", "aid", or "help" for the angels who fell, but the Scriptures teach that they are already judged and that God is demonstrating, through this world, and through observing mankind, that their judgement is just. Now this passage begins to make sense!
The fact that Jesus took on him the "nature of the seed of Abraham" is in verses 9 & 17 -

--- Heb 2:9 1611 KJV "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man".
--- Heb 2:17 1611 KJV "Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren".
The 1611 KJV translators added an "interpretation in italics" in Heb 2:16, which leads the reader to think they understand this verse.
The NKJV translates this verse "LITERALLY", instead of adding an "interpretation in italics", which leaves us with the question, "how is Jesus NOT giving aid to angels, but GIVING AID to the seed of Abraham?"
I think the lesson here may be that when we see words in the Bible in "italics", it is a "signal" that there may be a "golden nugget" there for those who really want to understand God's Word.

  NKJV Criticism #57. The NKJV distorts Heb 3:16, and makes it contradict itself.
1611 KJV - "For some, when they had heard did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses."
The NKJV says - "For who having heard rebelled? Indeed, WAS IT NOT ALL who came out of Egypt led by Moses?"

  #57 answered: Here is our little Greek word "pas" again, meaning "all sorts", "all types", "all kinds", not a 100 percent "ALL". In English, we say "all kinds of people", meaning "a whole bunch", or "lots of people".
The NKJV just translates Heb 3:16 literally from the Greek.
We know that Joshua and Caleb were the only two men who left Egypt with Moses, to continue on, and enter the Promised Land. The next verse explains: Ver 17, "But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness?"

  NKJV Criticism #58. In the NKJV, in Hebrews 4:8 & Acts 7:45, "Jesus" is changed to "Joshua"!

  #58 answered: "Jesus" and "Joshua" are exactly the same Greek word, <2424> "Iesous". We must decide from the "CONTEXT", whether to translate <2424> "Iesous" as "Jesus", or "Joshua". The "CONTEXT" of these two passages is Old Testament, when the children of Israel were entering the Promised Land. Literally, it was "Joshua" that led the Children of Israel into the Promised Land. I believe the "LITERAL" translation must always take precedence - and THEN we can look for "spiritual" interpretations.

  NKJV Criticism #59. The NKJV changes "sanctified", to "being sanctified", in Heb 10:14.
NKJV - "For by one offering He has perfected forever, those WHO ARE BEING sanctified." This unnecessary change in the NKJV conforms to heretical gospels, such as that taught by Rome, which claim that salvation is a sacramental process. The NKJV completely destroys the beauty and power of this verse, that through the once-for-all sacrifice of Jesus Christ the believer is perfected and sanctified forever. This verse properly translated, as in the 1611 KJV, defeats false views of salvation. The NKJV, on the other hand, creates confusion. If Christ's offering gives eternal perfection, as the first half of the verse claims, why does the rest of the verse say that we are BEING sanctified? It is confusion and error.

  #59 answered: <37> (5746) "hagiazo" here is "present tense", "passive voice" and the NKJV correctly translates "being sanctified".
<5048> (5758) "hath perfected" is the "perfect", "active", "indicative", of "teleioo", meaning to "perfect", to "complete", to "carry through completely", "to accomplish", "to finish", and the Greek "perfect tense" is "unchangeable".
<5048> (5758) "hath perfected" speaks of our "perfect" "position" "in Christ", with His righteousness ascribed to us and our life "hid" in His. <37> (5746) "hagiazo" here in the "present tense", "passive voice", speaks of our "growing TOWARD" that "position in Christ", in our EXPERIENCE. The Greek word "hagiadzo", is in the Textus Receptus in BOTH the "perfect" tense, AND the "present" tense:
1. The "perfect" tense, to declare that we are "permanently sanctified", in our "position", "in Christ", as in 1 Corinthians 1:2, and Heb 10:10.
2. And to declare that we are "presently" in the process of "being sanctified", in our "experience", as here in Hebrews 10:14. The present tense "being sanctified", is also in Heb 2:11:

--- Heb 2:11 NKJV - "For both He who sanctifies and those who are being sanctified are all of one, for which reason He is not ashamed to call them brethren".
When we realize "hagiazo", "sanctify" is used in BOTH the "present" AND "perfect" Greek tenses in the Textus Receptus, we can see how important it is to correctly translate the Greek tenses!

  NKJV Criticism #60. The NKJV changes the familiar "profession of our faith", to "confession of our hope", in Heb 10:23!

  #60 answered: There is no word for "faith" in Heb 10:23. The word in the Textus Receptus is <1680> "elpis", which the 1611 KJV translates correctly translates as "hope" 53 times. This once, in Heb 10:23, the 1611 KJV translators changed "hope" to "faith". <1680> "elpis" is "a strong reliance on an unseen fact", and as such is close to "faith", but "faith" is <4102> "pistis", translated 239 times in the 1611 KJV as "faith".
"Confession" is <3671> "homologia", which the 1611 KJV also translates as "confession", in 1 Tim 6:13.
I see the NKJV as correct, in Heb 10:23, to translate <3671> "homologia" + <1680> "elpis" as "confession of hope". We have a companion passage, for this "confession of hope", in 1 Pet. 3:15:

--- 1 Pet. 3:15 1611 KJV "But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope (<1680> "elpis") that is in you with meekness and fear".

  NKJV Criticism #61. In James 5:16, the NKJV changes "faults" to "trespasses".

  #61 answered: The Greek word here is <3900> "paraptoma", meaning "to fall beside", "a lapse or deviation from truth and uprightness". This describes an "unintentional" lapse from the truth. See The 7 Greek words for sin for a full explanation.
The 1611 KJV also translates <3900> "paraptoma" as "trespass" 9 times! Amazingly though, the 1611 KJV also translates <3900> "paraptoma" as "offence" 7 times, as "sin" 3 times, as "fall" twice, and as "fault" twice.
The NKJV closely matches the 1611 KJV in translating <3900> "paraptoma", and I do not think either version does justice to this Greek word.
The issue in James 5:16 is between people, admitting our unintentional "faults", toward others, when we "offend" them. All "sin" is against God, and confessed only to God. When we "offend" people, James 5:16 tells us to admit these offenses to those individuals we have offended.
Jesus taught the same principal in Matt 5:23 and 24:

--- Matt 5:23 1611 KJV "Therefore if thou bring thy gift to the altar, and there rememberest that thy brother hath ought against thee;
24 Leave there thy gift before the altar, and go thy way; first be reconciled to thy brother, and then come and offer thy gift."
No one intentionally "falls"! The emphasis of <3900> "paraptoma" is "unintentional", and here, the issue is between people.
We cannot fully worship God, if we harbor ill will, or know we have offended people, and we have not "reconciled" with them.

  NKJV Criticism #62. The NKJV changes "damnable heresies" to "destructive heresies", in 2 Pet. 2:1.

  #62 answered: The English word "damn" is an "expletive", meaning "to condemn".
The Greek word here is <684> "apoleia", meaning "destructive".
The 1611 KJV translates this word as "perdition" 8 times, "destruction" 5 times, "waste" twice, "pernicious" once, and strangely, as "damnable" once, here in 2 Pet. 2:1. I guess the 1611 KJV translators felt like "cursing" a little bit when they got to 2 Pet. 2:1!
The NKJV is correct in translating <684> "apoleia" as "destructive".

  NKJV Criticism #63. The NKJV removes "love of God", from 1 John 3:16.

  #63 answered: The reason "of God" is not in 1 John 3:16 in the NKJV, is that "Of God" is not in the Greek text, it was added by the 1611 KJV translators. Actually, "love" (agapan) here is "articular" (THE Love) and points to "HE" who laid down His life for us. This is none other than our Lord Jesus Christ, who, in His HUMANITY, (Deity cannot die) laid down His life for us. If the translator feels it is necessary to "add" words in italics here it should read "By this, we know the Love of Jesus, because He laid down His life for us".

--- 1 Jn 3:16 1611 KJV "Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren".
--- 1 Jn 3:16 NKJV "By this we know love, because He laid down His life for us. And we also ought to lay down our lives for the brethren".

  NKJV Criticism #64. In 1 John 5:13, the NKJV ADDS "CONTINUE" to "believe"! The NKJV reads: "These things I have written to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life, and that you may CONTINUE TO believe in the name of the Son of God." They add "CONTINUE TO" without any Greek text whatsoever! Not even the perverted NIV, NASV, NRSV and RSV go that far! A cruel, subtil (see Genesis 3:1) attack on the believer's eternal security! (Criticism from AV1611.org)

  #64 answered: The NKJV is correct. "Believe", <4100> "pisteuo" here is in the "present", "active", "subjunctive", which literally means "that you may keep on believing"! I wish the Translators would "expand" the translations to include the importance of the "tenses, moods, and voices" more often! The Apostle John is stating his motivation for writing his first epistle, and the Greek verb forms he uses are IMPORTANT. 1 John 5:13 expanded from the Greek:

--- "These things have I written unto you WHO ARE PRESENTLY BELIEVING on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that you are PRESENTLY POSSESSING eternal life, and that you may KEEP ON BELIEVING on the name of the Son of God.
John is only writing to those who are PRESENTLY BELIEVING, giving them information so they can be CONFIDENT THAT THEY ARE PRESENTLY POSSESSING ETERNAL LIFE (ETERNAL LIFE NEVER ENDS!) and information that will help them KEEP ON BELIEVING (Trusting in and relying on Jesus)!

  NKJV Criticism #65. In Rev. 2:13, the NKJV unbelievably changes "Satan's seat" to "Satan's throne"!

  #65 answered: The Greek word <2362> "Thronos", in Rev. 2:13 is a "throne". There are Greek words for a "seat" such as <2515> "cathedra", in Matt 23:2. But here, in Rev. 2:13, it is a "throne".
The 1611 KJV correctly translates <2362> "Thronos" as "throne" 54 times, but the 7 times "thronos" refers to Satan's "throne", or men's "thrones", the 1611 KJV switches to "seat". The NKJV is simply consistent, and translates <2362> "thronos" as "throne" each of the 61 times that God placed <2362> "thronos" in the Greek Textus Receptus. I do not believe translators should use "human wisdom" to change what God is saying! If God wanted to say "Satan's seat", He could have had the writer use the Greek word <2515> "cathedra"! When God's Word says "Satan's thronos", or "men's "thronos", I do not think we should be afraid to translate it correctly.

  NKJV Criticism #66. In Rev. 6:14, the NKJV changes "Heaven" to "sky".

  #66 answered: The singular form of the Greek word <3772> "ouranos" means the "sky", out past the highest mountaintop. The context must determine whether "ouranos" is referring to the starry expanse of the "sky" or whether it is referring to "heaven", the location of the throne of God. The "CONTEXT" in Rev. 6:14 is "mountains", "islands", and the "sky" rolled up like a scroll. I do not think the throne of God is going to be "rolled up" with the rest of this sinful world when God's judgement is poured out on this earth.
The 1611 KJV translators translated <3772> "ouranos" as "sky" 5 times, when they thought it was appropriate.
I believe the "singular" number of "ouranos" here in Rev. 6:14 is correctly translated as "sky" in the NKJV.

  NKJV Criticism #67. The NKJV removes the word "God" 28 times from the New Testament!

  #67 answered: "God Forbid"! The 1611 KJV says "God forbid" 14 times in the New Testament, where Paul said <3361> <1096> "may ginnomai" in the Textus Receptus Greek text. "May ginnomai" means "let it not be so!" There is no word for "God" in these 14 verses. "God forbid" was a common Elizabethan English "expletive", that was very familiar to the 1611 KJV translators, but there is no word for "God" (theos) in any of these passages! The 1611 KJV translators ignored what the Textus Receptus says ("may ginnomai" - "let it not be so!") and took God's name in vain 14 times, in Luke 20:16, Rom 3:4, 3:6, 3:31, 6:2, 6:15, 7:7, 7:13, 9:14, 11:1, 11:11, 1 Cor 6:15, Gal 2:17, 3:21, and 6:14.
Also, the 1611 KJV translators added the word "God" in italics, another 14 times, where there was no word for "God" in the context, and there was no need for the word "God" to be placed there in "italics": Matt. 2:12, Luke 20:16, Acts 19:20, Rom 11:4, 1 Cor 4:8, 1 Cor 16:2, 2 Cor 11:1, 2 Tim. 4:16, Heb 8:5, 9:6, and 11:7, 1 Pet. 3:20, and 2 John 1:10, and 11. Don't we think that if God wanted His name in a verse, He would have placed it there?
The NKJV just removed the word "God" 28 times, because it was not there in the Textus Receptus Greek text.

  In examining the criticisms of the NKJV Old Testament, I find exactly the same thing - the NKJV is faithful to the Masoretic Hebrew text, and brings out much information that is obscure in the 1611 KJV. I do not find a single instance where the NKJV could be considered "wrong" or even "misleading" in their translation of the Hebrew Old Testament or the Greek New Testament!
If anyone knows of an incorrect or misleading translation in the NKJV, or thinks that I am wrong in any of my answers, please email me at bobjones at biblefood dot com.

   I do not believe we should "worship" a "Bible Version". "Bible versions", in any language, are just that, man's attempt to "translate" God's Word into a modern language. I do not see any of the above "criticisms" as being extremely important to the basics of "Salvation", but, I believe they are an opportunity to learn about God's Word, and to better understand the Christian walk. I know, for me, these questions were an opportunity to better appreciate the work of all the translators, over the years. I believe the "Bible", God's eternal Word, is the Textus Receptus Greek New Testament text, and the Masoretic Old Testament Hebrew text. I also believe the 1611 King James Version and New King James Versions stand alone, in that they are the closest English versions to these original manuscripts, because they are the only two "modern" Bibles, that I know of, that are translated from the correct Textus Receptus Greek New Testament text and Masoretic Old Testament Hebrew text.

  The first colleges and universities in America were formed to teach the Biblical Greek and Hebrew to Pastor-teachers and missionaries, but as time has gone by, we have tried to build "teachings", and "denominations", and "religious hierarchies", on English "versions" of the Bible. In my humble estimation, if we truly want God's people to "grow up in Christ", God would have Pastor-Teachers expound the beauty and depth of His Truth, contained in the original manuscripts, so we will better understand what the "English Versions" are saying.

  I sincerely pray that this "Defense of the New King James Version" has given you a new appreciation for the 1611 KJV, AND the New King James Version, AND the Koine Greek Textus Receptus, AND the "Strongs Exhaustive Concordance".

I would also like to thank Dr. Peter Ruckman, Gail Riplinger, and AV1611.org, for bringing these passages to our attention, so we could study them and glean the wonderful truths from the Textus Receptus Greek text.

  Please see The Original Bible Manuscripts, and The value of the New Testament Koine Greek, and my "Insights From the New Testament Greek" for more information concerning Bible Translations, the value of the Greek New Testament, and major errors in the other modern English translations.

  Students together "in Christ",

  Bob Jones
  BibleFood.com